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Deacons

Q. If this person you are considering as deacon was blameless in their divorce because their divorced wife was the one who committed fornication and he has remained unmarried there shouldn't be any reason why he doesn't qualify if he meets the other requirements also. - From your thing on Deacon qauls. What if the poor blameless divorced man decides to get married because he has kids that need a mother? This was my case. Have I committed the unforgivebale and heinous sin when I got married or is this just in the Baptist churches? [Anon]

A. The Savior said: Matthew 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. and Matthew 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so. 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Notice the key phrases here are saving for the cause of fornication, and except it be for fornication. Is not the person who was sinned against released from the bonds of Holy Matrimony since the other committed adultery? (1st Timothy 3:12 Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well.) Should he not be allowed to hold this office? The one consideration that must be made by the church ordaining him is that his wife is no longer part of him! If he should remarry then let him remarry, "if" he were to keep the office of deacon, under the premise of the scriptures.

  • Should his wife die, making him a widower as in the "question" of the wife who was widowed 7 times and then died childless.
    1. Luke 20:27 -35
  • Should his wife be an unbeliever as Paul taught about the unbeliever married to the believer.
    1. 1st Corinthians 7:12 - 15
  • Should his wife have committed adultery, releasing him from the bonds of marriage.
    1. Matthew 5:31 - 32
    2. Matthew 19:7 - 8

If these three conditions aren't the case, then the man who is divorced and remarried has more than one wife as Jesus defined the counting (if you'll excuse the expression) of spouses with the Samarian woman at the well. John 4:16 Jesus saith unto her, Go, call thy husband, and come hither. 4:17 The woman answered and said, I have no husband. Jesus said unto her, Thou hast well said, I have no husband: 4:18 For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband: in that saidst thou truly.

I have covered this below in the previous question, but I believe this deserves deeper explanation. It first needs to be said that what I am telling you is nothing but scriptural. I have stated on the Parsons Corner time and time again that "TO ME", if the scriptures don't approve of it, "I" will have nothing to do with it! This is also the beliefs of the "Old Tyme Baptists".  There was a man of God named Dr. John Pendleton who was instrumental in the organization of American Baptist Church's in the early 1800's. Many of his writings are still accessible today and he was instrumental in writing the first accepted Baptist Church manual. Please read what he had to say on the scriptures.

  • The Phrase, doctrines of the church, is somewhat equivocal in it's import. It may mean what a church teaches, or what a church believes the Bible to teach. It is here used in the latter sense. All who believe the Scriptures to be divinely inspired consider them the fountain of religious truth. The Bible contains the revelation of God to man. It is the supreme standard of faith and practice. Whatever conforms to this standard is right -- whatever deviates from it is wrong. It is a duty incumbent upon all to "search the Scriptures" and learn what they teach. This duty cannot be faithfully performed unless prejudices and preconceived opinions are laid aside. Alas, how few study the Bible in this way. But for human imperfection there would doubtless be uniformity of belief as to what the Scriptures teach. There is not uniformity, but a deplorable variety of religious opinion throughout Christendom. Different sects, professing to take the word of God as their guide, contend as earnestly for their distinctive views as if they had different Bibles. Various constructions are placed  on the teachings of the sacred volume, and multitudes of passages are diversely interpreted. Owing to this unfortunate fact, thought the belief of the Bible is significant as between the religionist and the infidel, it signifies nothing as between those who receive the Scriptures as the word of God. For they differ as to the import of the inspired Oracles; and the meaning of the Bible is the Bible. As there is such diversity of opinion in the religious world, it is eminently proper for those who appeal to the Scriptures as the fountain of truth to declare what they believe the Scriptures to teach. To say that they believe the Scriptures is to say nothing to the purpose. All will say this, and yet all differ as to the teachings of the Bible. There must be some distinctive declaration. What a man believes the Bible to teach is his creed, either written or unwritten.And though it has sometimes been said that creeds have produced differences of religious opinion, it would be nearer to the truth, logically and historically, to say that differences of religious opinion have produced creeds.

Other denominations have sprouted out of even the Baptist church because there were many who did not want to stay in line with the scriptures or wanted to add their own personal interpretation of what the Word say's. Is that scripturally right? 2nd Peter 1:20 Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 1:21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

No, you haven't committed the unforgivebale and heinous sin. There is only one unforgivable sin! The blaspheming of the Holy Spirit. Matthew 12:31 Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. If you are in line with the scriptures with your divorce, then no man can honestly condemn you for what you have done! Saying this then, the body of Born Again Believers that you are a servant to, should take your circumstances into consideration in light of the Word! If you are in line with Gods Word, you are justified! If you are out of line with Gods Word you are wrong!

[Timothy]

Q. If there aren't men in the church that are eligible to be deacons is it biblical to have a laymens council? In the laymans council votes are taken for the needs of the church. What happens if there are not men capable to be deacons (divorced, not in there word, spotty attendance)? [Gloria]

A. Of course it's Biblical for all christians to be of assistance in church matters. Even the layman who are the members of the church are supposed to fill in the gap. If this church is living by the true word of God they will pray for the Lord to send them the leaders and helpers that are qualified. That is not to say that the "UNQUALIFIED" should jump in where they don't belong. No, I'm not trying to be mean. I am just stating the facts that if there are not qualified people to fill the position of deacon you should wait on the Lord. He will provide if you are in his will. If your church has a constitution then votes should be taken on the questions that you have in running church matters. If your church is solely run by the Pastor by agreement of the church then he should be allowed to make the needed decisions of the church until God fills the gap. You should not fill in the gap with just whosoever!!!

[Timothy]

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