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The Bible
Ask your question at the Bottom of the Page.
Q. Not to shed any type of doubt on the Word of God but, why are all teachings taken from various verses throughout the Bible and not just from one place? A. Good question and the scriptures have already answered that question for you. Isaiah 28:9 Whom shall he teach knowledge? and whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and drawn from the breasts. 28:10 For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little: In other words God knew exactly what He was doing when He had the Bible written. He knew in His infinate wisdom that this form not only made it necessary for us to dig to find His truths but that we would be exposed to His far deeper truths by making us see all of His Word as a whole. This is why Paul told Timothy: 2nd Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. You can't Righty Divide if you don't take the whole. Otherwise the division would be unequal. [The Parson]
Q. I found a printout of the article you wrote about the "Bible Version Comparison" laying around the office. I read the whole thing and one question comes to mind. I don't know who the translater/authors of the NIV were, but isn't it entirely possible that they translated the original Hebrew version (or what's left of it) and got something different out of it than the translater/authors of the KJV? And how could one be more correct than the other, after all it's just interpretations of a story that was written a very very long time ago. It seems like to me the only real way to know what the bible says is to learn Hebrew and translate it yourself. I mean, if you have dedicated your life to the Lord's work and all, would that be the best way to know what that work is? I'm not a Christian, although I do share some Christian beliefs, and I've never read the bible, but it seems to me if I was going to read it, I would want to know what it actually said--not what it's been edited down to over the past several thousand years. Sincerely, [Daginsu] A. Hey, it was good to hear that folks are scoping out the Parsons Corner and I really appreciate your comments on the article. Let me see if I can answer some of your questions. First to understand what the importance of seeing those changes you mentioned we first have to understand what happened that caused the King James version to be written in the first place. There are two manuscripts of the scriptures - the Received Text and the Alexandrian text. The Received Text is simply the Greek New Testament. The various individual letters of the Apostles,etc., were all compiled at the end of the 1st century and preserved by the bishops (pastors), deacons, and laymen of these churches over the ages. The churches were in Sardis, Philadelphia, Laodicea, Ephesus, Smyrna, Pergamos, & Thyatira. You'll find these churches referenced in Revelation, the last book of the bible, Chapters 2 & 3. The Alexandrian Text are the afore mentioned texts that were translated in the 3rd century into Latin by the pagan scholars in Alexandria Egypt. These texts also added books called the Maccabees which in content contradicted the rest of the bibles scripture. ie, purgatory or the supposed place between heaven and hell. This translation into Latin was known as the Latin Vulgate. If you are familiar with history you'll agree that the Roman Catholic church played a big role in keeping the masses ignorant to the contents of Gods Word, especially during the dark ages. Rome said that the common man was too ignorant to understand the spiritual content of the scriptures and that the clergy were the only ones who could say what was there.. Gee whiz, if you had a supposed place (purgatory) that folks go to instead of directly to heaven or hell then people would get the idea that there is a second chance after life and if you also told folks that the church (Roman Catholic) could pray you out of purgatory you would have some control over the masses. Do you see where I'm going to thus far?. The scriptures say: 2nd Corinthians 5:6 Therefore we are always confident, knowing that, whilst we are at home in the body, we are absent from the Lord: 5:7 (For we walk by faith, not by sight:) 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord. Quite a contradiction, wouldn't you say? There were several attempts to translate the received text into English but each attempt failed because the Alexandrian text kept making its way into the translations mysteriously. Imagine that! Who would have anything to gain by tainting one manuscript with another? Then King James who had had enough of Rome's interference commissioned the translating of the KJV which is the topic of this particular discussion we're having. Sure a couple of the Vatican's agents found their way into the midst of the Puritan translators but they were soon found out and expelled. When the KJV came into print it was the first and only time that the English speaking people had the pure Received Text in book form. And what a marvel in harmony it really is because it is a "True" translation. So what is the big deal you ask about the new translations? They are attempts again to cloud the Received text and to actually remove the meaning or cast doubt on Gods Word. That's what the big deal is. To date I have not seen any translation besides the KJV that isn't tainted with the Alexandrian Text or had meaning completely changed from their original intent. If you will please read again the "Bible Version Comparisons" you'll see what damage has already been done to peoples confidence in the inspired Word of God. Acts 16:31 And they said, Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and thou shalt be saved, and thy house. [Timothy]
Q. Dear Brother Timothy? As the first generation believers had no "New Testament" (it had not yet been written) to consult, did they remain faithful to the "thus saith the LORD" passages of the Law and Prophets? Thank you, [Madge] A. Madge, first I want you to consider that the Apostles were there in the first century and they had or were writing the letters that are the New Testament. The apostles knew that these letters needed to be shared among the churches, for instance: Collosians 4:16 And when this epistle is read among you, cause that it be read also in the church of the Laodiceans; and that ye likewise read the epistle from Laodicea. The Apostle Paul also knew that until the Bible (that which is perfect ) was completed, the church would have to rely on:
James also called the Bible the "Perfect" Law of Liberty: James 1:25 But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed. And to answer your question, yes the Old Testament was relied upon until the New Testament had been completed. This example from 2nd Timothy is a good indicater: 2nd Timothy 3:14 But continue thou in the things which thou hast learned and hast been assured of, knowing of whom thou hast learned them; 3:15 And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus Once the last of the letters was written which is Revelation we find that these letters had been dilligently copied and shared with the sister churches throughout. The Blood bought Christians of that day starting with the 1st century throughout had the new testament... It was then providence of God that these were compiled into one testament, The New Testament. The Lord Jesus making sure that his final book, Revelation was shared among all the churches told John to write: Revelation 1:4 John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne; This was to signify that all shared in this final book of prophecy as was also the case with all the Apostolic letters and the Gospels. So to summerize Madge, yes they did rely on the Old Testament but it wasn't long before the New Testament was fulfilled and the completed Bible became THAT WHICH IS PERFECT... Timothy
Q. I teach a teen class on Sunday. I am having problems understanding about minor prophets. 2 Chronicles 36:1-23. [Tammy Belue] A. First of all we need to understand what a prophet is. A prophet was a man who spoke of God's will towards an individual or a group. There were a few Theologians who believed that there were minor prophets and major prophets. According to the theologians "Minor" prophets are ones that didn't have anything of great importance to say, and the "Major" prophets had everything to say. But contrary to what they say the definition for prophet explains itself. There are no minor prophets or major prophets. Just a prophet that proclaims God's word. Ezra 5:1 Then the prophets, Haggai the prophet, and Zechariah the son of Iddo, prophesied unto the Jews that [were] in Judah and Jerusalem in the name of the God of Israel, [even] unto them. 1 Kings 11:29 And it came to pass at that time when Jeroboam went out of Jerusalem, that the prophet Ahijah the Shilonite found him in the way; and he had clad himself with a new garment; and they two [were] alone in the field: 11:30 And Ahijah caught the new garment that [was] on him, and rent it [in] twelve pieces: 11:31 And he said to Jeroboam, Take thee ten pieces: for thus saith the LORD, the God of Israel, Behold, I will rend the kingdom out of the hand of Solomon, and will give ten tribes to thee: There are so many different Prophets spoken of throughout the Bible. This is just two examples of Prophets that are not referred to as a Major Prophet. I hope this will help you to understand about prophets spoken about throughout the Bible as a whole. [Brother Anthony]
Q. In answer to the previous question regarding the King James Version of the Bible you said that Easter was already a calendar event. What was Easter prior to the resurrection of Christ? If it was a pagan holiday why do we associate it with the resurrection of our precious Savior. Was it not also during the celebration of Passover? If so, why would Luke reference Christ's resurrection with a pagan holiday rather than a Jewish holy day? Thanks. [Kevin] A. As I stated in the answer below Kevin, it was a date on the calender. Luke was a physician, a man of much knowledge & learning. He knew it was proper for him to point to a time that was known to all! No where do you see him giving honor to anyone but the Lord. The starting of Passover preceded the time of Easter therefore it wouldn't be as precise to point to that time on the calender! There is more than one day in the time of the Passover! Everywhere in the scriptures do we find references to a certain thing to mark an event, for instance; Daniel 1:1 In the third year of the reign of Jehoiakim king of Judah came Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon unto Jerusalem, and besieged it. or Luke 3:1 Now in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, Pontius Pilate being governor of Judaea, and Herod being tetrarch of Galilee, and his brother Philip tetrarch of Ituraea and of the region of Trachonitis, and Lysanias the tetrarch of Abilene, For that matter, take notice that there are no specific (Hebrew Numerical Calender) dates mentioned anywhere in the scriptures that I can find. Just references to sabbaths, reigns, and numbered days of the week!
[Timothy]
Q. Acts 12:4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him - intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people. How do you answer an educated person that tells you that there are translation errors in the KJV and then proves it to you by using the above verse which mentions the word "Easter". And what do you do when he tells you that if the KJV only is the Word of God, then the non-English people of the world do not have the word of God. If you say that God gave to the English speaking people the KJV only, then were they out of luck prior to 1611? Also if I were to translate my French testament into English would I have the Word of God or just another perversion? What do I tell someone that got saved reading the NIV after being unable to understand the Olde English of the KJV? Do I tell God that He messed up? [Anon] A. I hope this doesn't come as a shock to you but the time of Easter was, at the time of the writing of the scriptures, already a calender event. Not that the writers of the scriptures were trying to give glory to another besides God, but a place to "point to" on the calender. It would be the same as a Farmer telling you that he planted in the Spring Equinox or for a fisherman to tell you that he made his largest catch on the first full moon of the year. It just so happens that this is the time on the calender that my Savior Arose! Ecclesiastes 3:1: To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under the heaven: 3:2 A time to be born, and a time to die; a time to plant, and a time to pluck up that which is planted; 3:3 A time to kill, and a time to heal; a time to break down, and a time to build up; 3:4 A time to weep, and a time to laugh; a time to mourn, and a time to dance; 3:5 A time to cast away stones, and a time to gather stones together; a time to embrace, and a time to refrain from embracing; 3:6 A time to get, and a time to lose; a time to keep, and a time to cast away; 3:7 A time to rend, and a time to sew; a time to keep silence, and a time to speak; 3:8 A time to love, and a time to hate; a time of war, and a time of peace. As far as the English KJV Bible, can you tell me how many languages this perfect work has been translated into? Has it not been the English speaking church that has been doing almost all the evangelism throughout the world since the King James Version has been translated? And since I've gotten into the scriptures and studied in the Spirit, I haven't had a problem understanding the earlier English language. James 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. Now then to the "Before the KJV". The original writings and sayings of the apostles were there all the time, passed on from generation to generation waiting for the time to be compiled into that perfect work! 1st Corinthians13:8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. 13:9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 13:10 "But when that which is perfect is come", then that which is in part shall be done away. 13:11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. By the way, the salvation received by one being saved is through the "Preached Word" of God through the Holy Spirit! Romans 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. 10:14 How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher? 10:15 And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things! 10:16 But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report? 10:17: So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. How also could the eunich have understood the word unless a preacher explained it to him? Acts 8:26 And the angel of the Lord spake unto Philip, saying, Arise, and go toward the south unto the way that goeth down from Jerusalem unto Gaza, which is desert. 8:27 And he arose and went: and, behold, a man of Ethiopia, an eunuch of great authority under Candace queen of the Ethiopians, who had the charge of all her treasure, and had come to Jerusalem for to worship, 8:28 Was returning, and sitting in his chariot read Esaias the prophet. 8:29 Then the Spirit said unto Philip, Go near, and join thyself to this chariot. 8:30 And Philip ran thither to him, and heard him read the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou readest? 8:31 And he said, How can I, except some man should guide me? And he desired Philip that he would come up and sit with him. 8:32 The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth: 8:33 In his humiliation his judgment was taken away: and who shall declare his generation? for his life is taken from the earth. 8:34 And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man? 8:35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus. 8:36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? 8:37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. [Timothy]
Q. I have a question regarding a seeming discrepancy in numbers reported in various books of the Bible. In 2Chron36:9 it states "Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign" while 2Kings 24:8 says "Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when be began to reign". What is the reason for this? A. Gosh fella, did ya read the verses surrounding these? Notice in 2nd Chronicals 36:10 "And when the year was expired, king Nebuchadnezzar sent, and brought him to Babylon, with the goodly vessels of the house of the Lord, and made Zedekiah his brother king over Judah and Jerusalem." this king was taken into captivity and as the custom of the conquerers was to insert an indoctrinated king (puppet) on the throne of a conquered nation, this is what happened in the reign of Jehoiachin. It is my contention that 2nd Kings is where he was placed back on that throne when he was eighteen. This is where we see the ten year difference! The difference is that these were written from different vantage points at different times. What is happening ten minutes or ten years ago may not be happening now. Do you see what I mean? 2nd Kings 24:8 Jehoiachin was eighteen years old when he began to reign, and he reigned in Jerusalem three months. And his mother's name was Nehushta, the daughter of Elnathan of Jerusalem. 2nd Chronicals 36:9 Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign, and he reigned three months and ten days in Jerusalem: and he did that which was evil in the sight of the Lord. [Timothy]
Q. My name is Richard Ward from Fairbanks Alaska and believe that our KJV was given by inspiration. I have asked every KJV believers the following without any reply. What is the difference between the Holy Ghost and the Holy Spirit and why only the KJV has Holy Ghost with the phase Holy Spirit only seven times Please help [Richard Ward] A. Richard, Have you ever been angry or derogatory and someone told you that you had a bad spirit? Or how about when you were happy or over joyed and someone said you had a good spirit. Put simply, it's when the scriptures speak of the Holy Ghost, it is speaking of the person of the Holy Ghost and the result of what the Holy Ghost does to us is the Holy Spirit! Ephesians 4:29 Let no corrupt communication proceed out of your mouth, but that which is good to the use of edifying, that it may minister grace unto the hearers. 4:30 And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption. 4:31 Let all bitterness, and wrath, and anger, and clamour, and evil speaking, be put away from you, with all malice: 4:32 And be ye kind one to another, tenderhearted, forgiving one another, even as God for Christ's sake hath forgiven you. The Words of the above passages in red are the opposite of what the Holy Spirit of the Holy Ghost is. The words in Blue are part of the fruit of the Spirit are. And what is the FRUIT (results) of the Holy Spirit? Read the passages below and this should shed total light on the answer to your question. Galations 5:22 But the fruit of the Spirit is love, joy, peace, longsuffering, gentleness, goodness, faith, 5:23 Meekness, temperance: against such there is no law.5:24: And they that are Christ's have crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts. 5:25 If we live in the Spirit, let us also walk in the Spirit. [Timothy]
Q. I am looking for a good scriptural answer to someone who wants to know that the Bible is indeed the word of God. That is how do we know that the word of God is not just spoken but actually written down for us. I know the arguments for logic....that is if it's not a book then how else could we have it. But I'm looking for scriptural proof that the word of God is a book. Thanks very much for your time. [Chris] A. Of course it's a book, but it's the most divinely written book ever penned because its Author is God! Men who were called of God were inspired by God and given the words as the Holy Spirit gave them utterance. The harmony of the word of God was Given by the WORD of God. And who is the WORD of God. John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God. 1:3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. That WORD was and is Jesus Christ. To question as harmonious book as the Bible is foolish and shows a lack of the fear of God. Proverbs 8:13 The fear of the Lord is to hate evil: pride, and arrogancy, and the evil way, and the froward mouth, do I hate. 8:14: Counsel is mine, and sound wisdom: I am understanding; I have strength. 8:15 By me kings reign, and princes decree justice. 8:16 By me princes rule, and nobles, even all the judges of the earth. 8:17 I love them that love me; and those that seek me early shall find me. Those who would question the Bible as Gods Holy Book are questioning God himself. Men of God were told over and over again to write those things which God had told them. The first example I offer to you is where John the revelator was to write those things he saw. - Revelation 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea. If you have a way to look up the word "write" in the Old and New testaments you will find numerous accounts where the man of God was told by God to write down his words, especially in Deuteronomy! Watch out for those who would dispute the Word of God. Consider the two below selections from the scriptures. 1 Timothy 1:4 Neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do. 1:5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned: 1:6: From which some having swerved have turned aside unto vain jangling; Romans 3:3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect? 3:4 God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged. 3:5 But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man) 3:6 God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world? 3:7 For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner? The Bible is a book of faith and is the true inspired word of God! We have to accept it by faith. Hebrews 11:1 Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. 11:2 For by it the elders obtained a good report. 11:3 Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear. Romans 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. If this doesn't answer your question, let me know and we will go deeper. [Timothy]
Q. You state all answers will be taken out of the King James Version Bible. Is that because you do not approve of the New International Version and if so why? [Bonnie] A. Bonnie, I still believe that the King James Version is the inspired word of God in English. My belief is because of the liberal ways of thinking now being tolerated by our churches on the part of Bible Scholars. When the New International Version (1979) was published it was based on the Greek textural notes by Eberhard Nestle. This text was based on the Alexandrian bible and was tainted through and through with pagan ideals in its translations. Let me give you something to consider. God's word in the Old Testament was unchanged in the original Hebrew, for countless centuries. It was not changed to suit any revision of the language or by the change of any ruler. It was preserved in its original form by true men of God. This was their way of assuring that God's word remained unchanged. The King James version has been proved for centuries as an inspired translation and regarded this way until just recently in history. Why? 2 Timothy 4:3 For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; 4:4 And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables. 4:5 But watch thou in all things, endure afflictions, do the work of an evangelist, make full proof of thy ministry. We of the english speaking world needed the Word of God to make ourselves in line with what God had in store for us. At the time of its translation there were a few english translations out there but they were based on manuscripts that were written by the idol worshiping, pagan, and godless scholars of Alexandria. Not by men of God. King James obeyed God and diligently sought out true manuscripts and the men of God to translate them into english. These men were not only inspired to Gods work but were also under the penalty of death if they allowed a mistranslation to enter into their work. Please understand me when I say that the perfection of the King James version that I proclaim to you is a statement of faith and is my true belief. I will not debate any further on its purity. I am not trying to be mean with this statement and no, I am not a Ruckmanite! Since the new translations have been coming out there has been nothing but strife and contention among the brethren. This is not the will of God for us to be arguing about his word. If something causes arguing and dispute, do you actually believe that God will have any part of it. 1 Corinthians 14:33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints. Let's look at a few comparisions from the King James Version and the NIV.
Do you see a problem here??? To be honest with you, the list of omissions and contradictions goes on and on! No more disputes over the scriptures folks. God wants us to agree and work towards His Goals and not our own. Titus 3:9 But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain. Now if you would like to study further into the translations go to An Understandable History of the Bible. This is a book by Samuel C. Gipp, Th.D. that's online for you to read. It may be of some help to you. [Timothy]
Q. Should I read books that do not use the KJV Translations? For example, a book of acts that uses the NIV. Thanks for your help. [Gloria Thomas] A. Gloria, I guess that you need to pray about it. Even though I don't holler as loud as my colleagues about the other versions of the bible, I still have the same conviction. If the other versions do not stick with the originally translated text, why trust reference materials taken from them? [Timothy]
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